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Sample Questions for the Phase I Examination

The Phase I Examination will consist of approximately 125 multiple choice questions with one correct answer.

Large Animal Questions

Small Animal Questions


Large Animal Questions

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the equine cecum is correct?
    1. The ileocecal orifice is located distally to the cecocolic orifice.
    2. Blood supply is derived from a branch of the ileocolic artery.
    3. Net transmural water movement is into the cecal lumen.
    4. Progressive, pattern IV cecal motility occurs every 30 seconds in fed horses.
  2. Which statement concerning intestinal function is correct?
    1. Intestinal crypt cells have less potent secretory capability than cells at the villus tip.
    2. The primary energy source for enterocytes is glucose.
    3. Oxyntic cells in the gastric mucosa secrete bicarbonate to help buffer the hydrochloric acid.
    4. Polymeric structures must be hydrolyzed to monomers to be transported across the brush border.
  3. Which of the following statements on the difference between surgical needles is correct?
    1. The taper point needle is better to use on fibrous tissue than the taper cut needle.
    2. The taper point needle has a similar tip to the reverse cutting but has a cylindrical body.
    3. The conventional cutting needle has a cylindrical body but the same tip as the reverse cutting.
    4. The taper cut needle has a reverse cutting tip.
  4. Which of the following statements regarding fluoroquinolone antimicrobials is correct?
    1. They inhibit the DNA helicase enzyme.
    2. They are concentrated in the urine.
    3. They are time-dependent bactericidal agents.
    4. They have activity against aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
  5. Which cause of hypoxemia is least likely to respond to oxygen administration?
    1. Arteriovenous shunt
    2. High V/Q mismatch
    3. Diffusion impairment
    4. Hypoventilation
  6. Which of the following statements regarding regional/local anesthesia is correct?
    1. Epidurally administered detomidine results in a substantially longer duration of anesthesia than a combined xylazine and lidocaine epidural.
    2. The tibial nerve is palpated and desensitized approximately 10 cm proximal to the tuber calcaneus and between the superficial digital flexor tendon and gastrocnemius tendon.
    3. The palmar nerves are desensitized proximal to the palmar digital tendon sheath between the suspensory ligament and the deep digital flexor tendon.
    4. The frontal nerve is anesthetized as it exits the supraorbital foramen to block motor function of the upper eyelid.

Small Animal Questions

  1. Which statement regarding the anatomy of the dog's stifle is correct?
    1. The cranial cruciate ligament is composed of two bands: the smaller craniolateral band which is taut throughout the stifle's range of motion and the larger caudomedial band which is taut in flexion but lax in extension.
    2. The meniscofemoral ligament provides the sole attachment for the medial meniscus to the femoral condyle and is the principal reason medial meniscal damage occurs in association with cranial cruciate ligament insufficiency.
    3. The caudal cruciate ligament arises within the intercondylar fossa from the craniolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle and extends caudodistally to insert on the craniolateral edge of the popliteal notch of the tibia.
    4. The menisci are composed of hyaline cartilage and are avascular except along their periphery where the vascular synovial plexus arises from attachments to the joint capsule.
  2. Which of the following anesthetic drugs has been shown to negatively affect neonate survival when used to induce anesthesia for a Cesarean section?
    1. Ketamine
    2. Diazepam
    3. Propofol
    4. Xylazine
  3. The body of the urinary bladder has a resting phase during urine storage and an active phase during voiding. What is the predominant innervation of the body of the urinary bladder during each of these phases?
    1. Beta-adrenergic control during the resting phase; parasympathetic control during the active phase.
    2. Alpha-adrenergic control during the resting phase; parasympathetic control during the active phase.
    3. Parasympathetic control during the resting phase; sympathetic control during the active phase.
    4. Parasympathetic control during the resting phase; somatic control during the active phase.
  4. Oral absorption of fluoroquinolone antibiotics is most likely to be decreased by the concurrent administration of:
    1. sucralfate.
    2. carprofen.
    3. ranitidine.
    4. metoclopramide.
  5. Which of the following statements regarding the use of opioid drugs in the epidural space is correct?
    1. The rostral spread of opioids after epidural administration is greater for the more lipophilic opioids compared to hydrophilic opioids.
    2. Hydrophilic opioids, when given epidurally, have a slower onset of analgesia and a longer duration of effectiveness compared to more lipophilic opioids.
    3. Opioids block the action of voltage-gated sodium channels in C and A- nociceptive fibers, blocking transmission of impulses to higher brain centers.
    4. The dosage of lipophilic opioids is considerably less compared to the systemic dosage of the same drug and should, therefore, have no supraspinal activity in dogs.
  6. Which statement concerning pleural fluid formation and absorption is correct?
    1. Lung lobe torsion results in pleural effusion secondary to a generalized increase in hydrostatic pressure within pleural cavity.
    2. Right-sided congestive heart failure increases parietal capillary hydrostatic pressure and thereby increases pleural fluid formation.
    3. Hypoproteinemia increases the rate of formation and absorption of pleural fluid.
    4. Inflammation of the pleura increases the rate of formation and absorption of pleural fluid.

View answers to the Phase I sample questions